In my morning Bible time I was in James 1 and noticed something odd. In James 1:13, James is dealing with the subject of temptation. The verse emphasizes personal responsibility when we face temptation. God can never be charged as the author of temptation. The sinner therefore never has the right to transfer the guilt from himself to God.
Now, this is largely true because (so the Greek):
Please notice the word circled in red. It seems to have been overlooked in both the NIV (an "idiomatic" translation) and the KJV (a more "literal" translation if you will):
NIV: "nor does he tempt anyone"
KJV: "neither tempteth he any man"
In my opinion, these are unhappy translations. There seems to be no reason to leave that word in red untranslated. Look at these versions:
CSB: "and he himself doesn't tempt anyone"
ESV: "and he himself tempts no one"
GNT: "And he himself tempts no one"
NASB: "and He Himself does not tempt anyone"
Again, not saying the NIV or the KJV is wrong here. It just struck me as odd. I'm not against either translation. In fact, I love the KJV. It was my first Bible. I agree 100 percent with John Miles that we should read and use it.
Nor am I against using the NIV in our Bible study. I'm guessing you have your favored English Bible translation, and that's fine. But it might behoove us to use as many versions as we can. The discussion I hear is usually "Use this translation but not that one." And most people tend to fall either on the "I prefer idiomatic translations" or "I prefer literal translations." I can see those points. But personally, I wouldn't worry too much about that. However, if you do prefer one version over the other, it's probably still a good idea to consult other versions in your study. It can help you fine tune your research.
Just a thought!