What do you think? Should we supply nouns in English when they aren't in the Greek?
This morning I was reading 1 John 2.
In verse 6 we read, "The one who claims to abide in him ought to walk as he walked." Who is the "he" in "he walked"? Grammatically, the nearest antecedent in Greek is "God." But the reference is definitely to Christ based on John's style and diction (John literally wrote, not "he," but "that one" -- his shorthand for Jesus). Should Bible translators make this clear?
I would say yes. The NIV reads: "must live as Jesus did." The GNT has: "we should live just as Jesus Christ did." The Living Bible prefers: "Anyone whos says he is a Christian should live as Christ did." And I love how The Message renders this verse: "Anyone who claims to be intimate with God ought to live the same kind of life Jesus lived."
We can also note the following translations:
NET: "ought to walk just as Jesus walked."
DHH: "debe vivir como vivió Jesucristo."
HOF: "der soll auch so leben, wie Jesus gelebt hat."
BDS: "doit vivre comme Christ lui-même a vécu."
HWP: "dey gotta do everyting jalike Jesus wen do."
BDG: "dovete ancha vivere come Cristo ha vissuto."
As my Greek 2 class this semester begins to translate the book of 1 John (easy Greek, profound theology), I want them to see that they can know that they know God not only by keeping God's commandments (2:3), not only by "doing his word" (2:4), but by "walking as Jesus walked" (2:6.) Righteous conduct is not enough. Our lives must conform to the example of Christ as well as to his commands.
My friend, the test of obedience is always before us. Our words must be tested by our works. If our conduct contradicts our profession, it proves itself to be false. The failure to pass this test is to stand self-exposed.
Have a wonderful Labor Day!